I may be wrong on this, and if I am accused of ignoring the result of a democratic vote so be it, but would the country be as divided on this issue if there had been a statement before the referendum stating that we would only leave if the percentage of those wanting to leave was at least that voting to stay in 1975 after entry in 1975, which was 67.2%.
If, and I appreciate it is unlikely, then the Channel Islands should be included in any second referendum:"
The definition of United Kingdom in the British Nationality Act 1981 is interpreted as including the UK and the Islands together.The European Commission confirmed in a written reply to the European Parliament in 2003 that Jersey is within the Union as a European Territory for whose external relationships the UK is responsible. Jersey is not fully part of the
European Union but has a special relationship with it, notably being treated as within the European Community for the purposes of free trade in goods". Technically, as the islands were excluded from the referendum, could the vote be classed as unlawful, and therefore null and void? I appreciate that there is the obvious answer that the CI has no representation in Westminster, but neither does Gibraltar, and they were able to vote on the issue.