Of course they took from other landowners other kings and eventually took it to be their own. Then made people work for them and pay them a pittance for living on their land out of their wages as they worked for them. Doesn’t mean we should let it be that way a feudal way of doing things only updated by currency. Do you think it’s right a person on the duchy of Lancaster or Cornwall should be disallowed from buying a home because it’s owned by the future king ? When a person in a house owned by a charitable landlord organisation can get a cheap deal? Do you think people living in cities should pay ground rent to the duke of Westminster ?No, I'm not in the least confused.
But I do like history, and the who owned what is a historical fact.
The lands ownwed by The Crown were not taken from 'The People', unless you mean the previous Landowners.
For the sake of simplicity, I'll start with 1066.
When William beat Harold all the land in England became his, in theory. Many of the Saxon leaders lost their holdings.
Only a negligable amount of anything was owned by what, today, we think of as 'the working class''
William gave great tracts of this to his supporters, who we now think of as 'The Nobility' and some Saxons kept what they had held previously.
The nobility parceled tracts off to their supporters too.
Over the centuries The nobility saw their lands diminish mostly to The Church and by flogging bits off.
A merchant class developed and bought up relatively small estates and villages.
Then Henry the Eighth confiscated and flogged off, mostly to the newly rich Merchant Class, most of The Church Lands.
So Land ownership became more widspread and along the way the Yeoman Farmer appeared.
The deal made between Parliament and The Crown was something similar to a Perpetual Annuity.
So far it has worked well for all parties for most of the time.
Your philosophy seems rather akin to my understanding of the Native Australians who believe that land can not be owned, simply used for a while by the occupant.
So to return to your point, just who were these people that The Royal Family took the Lands from?
And if it was the Saxon Lords, who did THEY get it from.
And if it was the Celtic Lords, who did they take it from.
And if you think this is complicated, enquire into the properties included when Jasmes the Sixth became James the First.
And YES, I confess to having oversimplified this.
I aint no teacher.
it needs a rocket up it. It’s wrong
