Not sure how this will go down - but just seen the news about his ban and fine (I'm outside the UK at the minute- just in case anyone thinks I'm up late worrying about the poor man).
I'm not a big fan of Terry, although I do admire his spirit in the face of adversity- he has got an exceptional character in the sense he rises to the occasion, regardless of the pressure (although his actions in Barcelona somewhat undermine that opinion).
It sounds as though they have applied FA Rule E3 (2) in a very literal sense. He admitted using what is racist language, but the context of it (in his argument) was not racially motivated. I know there is a different 'burden of proof' in an FA hearing- but there is no conclusive evidence of what he actually said- "f.. b.. c..." is on camera, but it's clearly part of a longer sentence, the key part obscured from all angles.
The FA has stated it will provide written reasons.
My personal opinion, having not seen the reasons yet (and therefore probably posited prematurely) is that they've taken this stance on point of principle- a racist word was used and therefore he must be charged. Given the Suarez affair I can somewhat understand, the next issue is how Ferdinand is treated.
If they do think he is guilty, it seems quite a light punishment- one month ban and one weeks wages, essentially.
It seems like they've tried to find a 'halfway house' on this one. I think this was always going to be the outcome- what was the point of a three day hearing?
I'm not a big fan of Terry, although I do admire his spirit in the face of adversity- he has got an exceptional character in the sense he rises to the occasion, regardless of the pressure (although his actions in Barcelona somewhat undermine that opinion).
It sounds as though they have applied FA Rule E3 (2) in a very literal sense. He admitted using what is racist language, but the context of it (in his argument) was not racially motivated. I know there is a different 'burden of proof' in an FA hearing- but there is no conclusive evidence of what he actually said- "f.. b.. c..." is on camera, but it's clearly part of a longer sentence, the key part obscured from all angles.
The FA has stated it will provide written reasons.
My personal opinion, having not seen the reasons yet (and therefore probably posited prematurely) is that they've taken this stance on point of principle- a racist word was used and therefore he must be charged. Given the Suarez affair I can somewhat understand, the next issue is how Ferdinand is treated.
If they do think he is guilty, it seems quite a light punishment- one month ban and one weeks wages, essentially.
It seems like they've tried to find a 'halfway house' on this one. I think this was always going to be the outcome- what was the point of a three day hearing?