Pub Quiz thread

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OK, perhaps I'm being a little obtuse, please refer to the games v. Darlington (away) in 1975-76 season and WBA (home) in 1982-83 season. What a difference 7 years makes......
 
The only other name it had was when the Argentinians bought it. Péron was President and it was named 17 de Octubre after the day he was released from prison in 1945. It was renamed after he was deposed in 1955. Dave and cologne, it's your call on who asks the next question.
 
Ok. a quickie.......We have already seen that ancient Egyptians held an onion in the hand whilst swearing an oath (like a Bible in later times) - but what did the Romans and also Hebrews hold in the left hand when doing the same ? For a bonus which modern legal term is thought to stem from this ?
 
Students of Latin are often struck by the fact that the same Latin word testis meant both a “witness” and a “testicle.” In fact, ancient Roman writers, like Plautus, sometimes played with this double meaning. Surprisingly, no scholar had satisfactorily accounted for the origin of this puzzling ambiguity until 1998, when the Princeton Classicist Joshua Katz published his article “Testimonia Ritus Italici: Male Genitalia, Solemn Declarations, and a New Latin Sound Law” in Harvard Studies in Classical Philology.

According to Katz (and others before him) the original Indo-European form of testis was trito-sth2-i meaning “a third person standing,” i.e. a third person standing by in order to witness some event (sth2, the second part of the IE form, is related to the Latin word sto, stare to stand). So testis originally meant a “witness.” But how did it come to mean “testicle” as well? In order to answer this question, Katz begins by citing Near Eastern examples of men holding someone’s genitals while they swear an oath. In one famous instance from the Hebrew Bible, Jacob instructs his son Joseph,

If now I have found favor in your sight, put your hand under my thigh, and promise to deal loyally and truly with me. (Genesis 47.29, my italics)
 
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