With the continuing saga of inept officials, bizarre, overlong decisions, confusing laws and inconclusive evidence week in, week out, thought we should have a central thread to cover the topic.
There were a few instances last weekend, notably the 'penalty' for Newcastle against Wolves that should have been overturned. But I will start closer to home: the Ayew handball.
The on field officials saw nothing and awarded the goal.
VAR reviewed - for nearly 4 fecking minutes! - and it was quite clear from at least one angle that the ball had hit Ayew's arm and dropped nicely for him to volley the ball in.
Eventually the goal was given, supposedly because there was 'no clear and obvious error'.
Now, my understanding is that any handball in this scenario is (in criminal law terms) an absolute offence. If it hits the arm, deliberate or not, then the goal should not stand.
VAR shouldn't even refer the matter back to the ref to review on monitor.
So... what was the decision based on?
There were a few instances last weekend, notably the 'penalty' for Newcastle against Wolves that should have been overturned. But I will start closer to home: the Ayew handball.
The on field officials saw nothing and awarded the goal.
VAR reviewed - for nearly 4 fecking minutes! - and it was quite clear from at least one angle that the ball had hit Ayew's arm and dropped nicely for him to volley the ball in.
Eventually the goal was given, supposedly because there was 'no clear and obvious error'.
Now, my understanding is that any handball in this scenario is (in criminal law terms) an absolute offence. If it hits the arm, deliberate or not, then the goal should not stand.
VAR shouldn't even refer the matter back to the ref to review on monitor.
So... what was the decision based on?


