**** me this is hard work. For a contracted player (Ings) whos contract did not expire until July 1st.
OK, so in your world, on July 1 Spurs would be paying a transfer fee of 12 million to Burnley for a player who's no longer under contract to them? Righto. I'm trying to work out if you're on the wum, being obtuse, or just being stupid. I'm guessing the first, but all three are possible.
Ignore the fact that he's under 24 for a second. If a player was due to be out of contract on 30 June (such as Milner) and the transfer window wasn't due to open until 1 July (like in England), could a club buy that player during May/June...?
He is no longer in contract so is not theirs to sell. The valuation is based on what they could have received (had he accepted) whilst still under contract
If they wanted a set figure, they should have sold him before the contract expired. And no, I don't mean to spurs in May or June, I mean the previous summer or in January when a actual transfer window is open
Aside from the fact that it's compensation that's going to be paid and not a valuation, hey couldn't have received that amount (as a transfer fee) because at no point could they close the deal.
Makes no difference, it was a valid offer and it was accepted by the (then) owners of his registration.
If he was going abroad, Burnley would only get compensation covering what they'd spent on him excluding transfer fees and wages. They'd have got about £300k. Burnley should be grateful he stayed in this country as they'll get a lot more compensation as a result.
Like I said about 3 pages back, if Ings was up for it Spurs would have either had to pay or withdraw the offer. As far as I know the offer was never withdrawn