But it was impossible for a transfer to happen with the window not re-opening until after the contract expired.
Yes, but unable to sign for Spurs as the window was shut. And, indeed, unable to sign until his contract had expired, at which point he was no longer under contract. EDIT: So what Greez said.
But it was possible for a transfer to be agreed (if all party's were amicable) as happened with many players, our own Depay is just one example.
And if all had gone well with negotiations, do you think Spurs would have paid £12m when they knew full well they could get him for a lot less...? Or do you think they were using a loop hole to enable them to speak to Ings first?
Yes, but he couldn't actually sign until the window opened (same as Ings and others). Besides which, he was still under contract wasn't he?
So all them transfers before the window didn't happen then, I believe United agreed a transfer for Depay ahead of some other clubs (despite the window being closed). When did Liverpool agree to sign Milner?
Totally irrelevant, they made a bid, it was accepted (see Sunderland and Borini), the player didn't fancy the move because he had more chance of first team football at Liverpool.
June 4, to join July 1 subject to a medical. http://liverpoolfc.com/news/latest-news/186300-liverpool-agree-deal-to-sign-milner In Germany you get players agreeing deals before the season's even finished, but they still can't actually move until the window's opened (otherwise the window would be pointless).
They were all agreed but didn't actually happen until the window opened. The main difference being they were all either still under contract beyond the end of June or over 24 years of age so no compensation is due. Man Utd didn't officially sign Depay until the window opened. Same goes for Milner despite him being out of contract.
Correct, so when Burnley accepted the bid it was down to Ings to agree. See Borini/Sunderland for further information
Sorry, but what exactly are Burnley selling to Spurs in this case? Also, if Spurs really wanted to sign the player, why weren't they talking to him instead, given that he was going to be a free agent?
They were selling a contracted player. On the first of July Ings became a free agent so Burnley are now asking for compensation based on what they could have got whilst he was still under contract
Yes, but when does the transfer officially take place? And is the player still theirs to sell at that point in time?
