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The "official" all things Suarez thread

Discussion in 'Liverpool' started by theresonly1gerrard, Jul 2, 2014.

  1. moreinjuredthanowen

    moreinjuredthanowen Mr Brightside

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    look it will appear yes on the blaance sheet but its the P&L that matters lets look at arsenal as for me they are the most open and professional club for reportig

    http://www.arsenal.com/assets/_file...1380277138_Arsenal_Holdings_plc_-_Annual_.pdf


    in 2013 they show on page 15

    2013

    Group turnover 280.4
    Operating profit before amortisation, depreciation and player trading 29.6

    Player trading 1.6
    Amortisation of goodwill and depreciation (12.4)
    Joint venture 0.9
    Net finance charges (13.0)

    Profit before tax 6.7

    Its this profit before tax that in effect gets taxed right?

    so for example... they had 29.6 mil profit in the group before all the nicities that gets to knock that down. they actually made a profit on player sales in 2013.. then made a mil on some joint venture and then have depreciation which is likely stadium or capital related and good will is a fun one to explain but that knocks off 12.4 mil and they have finance charges of 13mil to pay.

    So they only have to pay tax on 6.7million pounds.

    Imagine if you will LFC had such good finances... <laugh> then Imagine you throw 75mil sterling into the equation and can only spend 50mil of it.. or whatever. then the tax man coems and asks for a big chunk of the remaining 25 mil

    however if you spread the load over next 2 years you can spend it as you go and targets become available... that is my theory anyway, it suits most clubs to have this system as it helps in terms of cash on hand/short term loans and it helps on the tax side too.
     
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  2. Sir_Red

    Sir_Red Well-Known Member

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    There is absolutely zero benefit in installments unless we are charging barca an outrageous interest rate. £1 now is always preferable than £1 in the future etc etc
     
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  3. jenners04

    jenners04 I must not post porn!

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    i think, don't quote me on it lol, but its just how you interpret your cash flow and debtors and creditors, and that obviously has an effect on what tax you pay for the year.

    i never got that advanced into accounting (although i did reconcile million pound a/c's, but that was just the tip of the iceberg as i worked in a bank, talking trillions), but its just a question of how you interpret the numbers so the tax man is the loser, but obviously done in a legal way, and clubs will have some of the best accountants around you can get considering they are dealing with large numbers.

    its why ffp i dont think will work, well properly anyway, as someone will find a way round to manipulate something so it benefits the club.
     
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  4. Lucas Talking

    Lucas Talking Well-Known Member

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    I've never seen a football clubs accounts, but I can imagine that Player Transfers would be considered assets and included on the balance sheet rather than tax-deductible expenses. To use your example of 75m but can only spend 50m on players. If the club has made 75m as profit, it doesn't matter whether they spend 50m or all of it on player acquisitions, the taxman will want tax paid on the 75m.
     
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  5. Tobes

    Tobes Warden
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    Some confusion between balance sheet and P&L here chaps.

    You pay corporation tax on the net profit declared in the accounts at the end of the financial year.

    However, what you choose to put to profit from asset sales is in essence up to you. Players are classed as intangible assets and are put on the balance sheet at the purchase price, this amount is amortised (written down) over the contract length. It is the amortisation that is the cost that goes to the annual P&L. So for example if you bought a player for £10m on a 4 year contract, you'd amortise his asset value @ £2.5m per annum.

    If you sold that player 2 years into his contract for say £20m, then he'd sit on your balance sheet at £5m at that point and you'd in theory be making a £15m profit on his sale. However, during the same period you will have bought and sold other players and will be amortising their contracts in the same financial period, so it is far too simplistic to say that the £15m is 'net profit. as it isn't, it's merely a balance sheet adjustment.
     
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  6. Do you reckon transfers are plus VAT? EG...if a club has to pay £75m for a player, its actually £75m+VAT? If they were done in this way then the buying club can claim the VAT back and the selling club gets their fee plus the VAT so aren't out of pocket.
     
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  7. Tobes

    Tobes Warden
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    If it's between 2 British clubs then VAT will be chargeable imo. But it'll be reclaimed anyway so it's irrelevant really.

    There's a 5% levy by the FA on all transfers though
     
    #767
  8. Pretty much my point Tobes <ok>

    The 5% on £75 is £3.75m. Bit **** that they get to spunk all that up the wall...<doh>
     
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  9. moreinjuredthanowen

    moreinjuredthanowen Mr Brightside

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    you are correct on that, absolutely.
     
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  10. Klopp's Mannschaft

    Klopp's Mannschaft Well-Known Member

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    Someone far more knowledgeable than I, on another website, posted this in response to how transfers work and where money is spent:
    The buying club pay:
    (a) Transfer fee - the big number.
    (b) Any levy applied by the local FA &#8211; 5% for the EPL.
    (c) Tax due on the transfer fee &#8211; typically this will be VAT (at varying rates across Europe) some or all of which should be reclaimable.
    (d) Agent fees &#8211; this may be to one or more agents (as an example, Liverpool have spent £25M plus VAT on agent fees over the past three years leading to this window).
    (e) Tax due on the agent fees &#8211; typically this is VAT at the local rate where the agent bills from &#8211; it is not reclaimable.
    (f) Intermediary fees &#8211; this may be to one or more sponging leeches.
    (g) Tax due on the Intermediary fees &#8211; typically this is VAT at the local rate where the Intermediary bills from &#8211; it is not reclaimable.
    (h) Signing on fee to the player (possibly including non-reclaimable VAT if the player is VAT registered).
    (i) Legal fees.
    (j) VAT on legal fees which is reclaimable.
    (k) Moving/relocation costs for the player.
    (l) VAT on moving/relocation costs which is reclaimable.
    (m) Paying up insurance costs to the selling club (sometimes waived).

    What is paid by the selling club would typically include:
    (a) If the player is under 24, a Solidarity contribution paid to his previous clubs responsible for his training - this is 5% of the transfer fee received.
    (b) Any monies owed to the player if he did not request a transfer &#8211; again this is 5% of the transfer fee received.
    (c) Any monies owed to the player in terms of his contract (typically outstanding owed wages (not future wages) and bonuses).
    Source, http://www.liverpool-rumours.co.uk/search.php

    Basically, what is quoted in the papers is nowhere close to what is actually spent.
     
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  11. Sir_Red

    Sir_Red Well-Known Member

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    http://tomkinstimes.com/2014/07/ffp-and-the-amortisation-of-suarez/

     
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  12. saintanton

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  13. moreinjuredthanowen

    moreinjuredthanowen Mr Brightside

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    thanks tobes.

    There are different methods for sure. For example the arsenal do put the amortisation over time on balance sheet but also profit on the trades within the year on P&L http://www.arsenal.com/assets/_file...1380277138_Arsenal_Holdings_plc_-_Annual_.pdf page 30,31.

    so would you say that the one transfer, in this case suarez could

    a) appear as a total profit or loss on trading within the financial year e.g. Profit on disposal of player registrations. would it be in your view all player sales in period - all player purchases in period OR profit on suarez registration only?
    b) the 23mil paid by lfc in 2011 could still be being "paid down" via amortisation. could be only a quart fo this left for example
    c) the resulting payment to LFC would then or not be included in "Intangible fixed assets" as the value of players as this would not longer be our value but coudl be on debtors within one or more years as that type of asset?
     
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  14. moreinjuredthanowen

    moreinjuredthanowen Mr Brightside

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    thanks also to sir red. The player pruchase end is clear on amorisation over the period and the red per giving new longer contracts allows the amortisation of the fee to go over longer period and lower amounts.

    the selling club proift with an installment system is not so clear.

    for example

    "depending on the exact figures that Barcelona are willing to pay for Suarez, an initial conservative £70m transfer fee minus the remaining £8.89m (£11.6 &#8211; £1.71m) which is 8 months further amortisation (£214,000 x 8 months December &#8217;13 to July &#8217;14 inclusive) gives Liverpool a total accounting profit on the Suarez sale of £61.11m. Therefore, with £9.6m in lower wages [1], £2.57m lower amortisation costs and £61.11m estimated profit on the sale, Liverpool may show an annual profit improvement of around £73.2m.2

    this assumes you take 70million and subtract the remaining value of suarez on our books and come up eith a total profit of 66mil lets elave it at that as wages and amortisatino hit different elements of the P&L.

    wages hit operating expanses for example

    my question/point is the incoming money this year is say oh i dunno 45million. therefore the P&L has to show profit on the trade of 45- this 8.89 (if you take it as read) therefore LFC can say 36.11mil profit... lets see how much we can offset... eg. lallana over 5 years = 5mil amortised this year? can = whatever etc etc... THEN the next 30mil of the fee could be paid in installments and come in each year.

    But surely this is taxable profit and must be in P&L, no?
     
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  15. Doesn't FFP only look at the last three seasons? If we get a lump some as expected, do we have to spend it all within that three years or can it be carried over still?
     
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  16. Red Hadron Collider

    Red Hadron Collider The Hammerhead

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    ****ing hell lads <doh>
     
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  17. Too complex for you? <laugh>
     
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  18. Red Hadron Collider

    Red Hadron Collider The Hammerhead

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    It's like talking to 'Rob the Builder' <laugh>
     
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  19. Tobes

    Tobes Warden
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    The net profit from the sale would be the total fee minus charges, minus the remaining asset value on the balance sheet for him.

    If the fee wasn't all paid in one lump, the calculation of the profit would remain the same, but the outstanding amount of unpaid fee would go into your debtors section of the balance sheet.

    In terms of the declared net profit, it's the profit from the entire periods player trading / amortisation that matters, not the single transaction, so without knowing what you had / will have due during the full financial year it's impossible to quantify.

    Given you're going to have spent more than the fee received during the period anyway, combined with what you've spent in recent seasons, the conversation is probably moot, as it's highly likely that there'll be no net profit when it's all collated.
     
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  20. saintanton

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    Who'd have thought it? There are nearly as many accountants on here as football managers.
     
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