Is that the mirror who had to employ a lip reader with more technology than nasa to determine whether they could be offended by jeremy clarkson mumbling a nursery ryhme.
What was the turnout when the Nazi party got voted in? I'm guessing significantly higher than the 34% (or whatever it was) in the recent Euro elections.
Given the context, I'm willing to let Godwin's Law slide for now. To clarify, although I dislike UKIP a great deal, I too think the Nazi Party/UKIP comparison is a bit of a stretch.
By their own admission: http://www.independent.co.uk/news/u...ing-to-the-educated-and-cultural-9423200.html
In the election leading up to Hitler grabbing power they got 29% of the popular vote - only 1.5% less than what UKIP got in the European elections. I do not know the turnout figure but it was probably quite low due to voter apathy at the time which, as I have said, is the danger of the ' plague on all your houses - you are all the same - I'm not voting ' attitude creeping into our electorate.
Can I say once more I am not suggesting that UKIP are as bad as the Nazis or that Farage is a new Hitler but was just using that period to illustrate a general point. If the Germans, who are an intelligent nation, can be conned into a Nazi Government by a combination of voter apathy and not reading the small print then surely it is not beyond the realms of possibility that the UK could sleepwalk towards giving UKIP more power. People cannot be reading what they are voting for - how else can you explain previous Labour voters in Yarmouth and Rotherham voting for a party that stands for privatisation of the NHS, 2 million jobs being axed in the public sector and the same tax rate for the dustman as a top banker as examples.
Anybody see Joey Barton last night on question time? Classic, UKIP is the least ugly girl in the four. #watchthefryingpans
I thought to myself when I watched it, that he wasn't being a too much of a knob... ...until he said that.
So it does. That's weird, how come they've put a different figure at the top in the summary-type thing?
Ok so I think I've got it - it looks like whoever edited the German elections between 1932 and 1933 has misunderstood their source - 70.84% represents the percentage of the German population eligible to vote, which is why the three elections all have a number around 71% http://www.gonschior.de/weimar/Deutschland/RT6.html
So... am I right in thinking the turnout is actually reflected as around 99% or so!? The same as it was recorded when Hitler & Co. were at the height of their power! I smell a rat if so...