question about RvP deal. The first paragraph of the beeb article (http://www.bbc.co.uk/sport/0/football/19179833) says: How have they agreed a 4 year contract without discussing personal terms? Surely the contract length has nothing to do with Arsenal?
I think it's more a case of the usual lazy hack journo trick of cramming two ideas into one sentence in order to save editorial space. If the article had been written by a proper journo in a decent newspaper, it would have read:- "The football club Arsenal has agreed to sell its star striker, Robin van Persie, to its deadly rivals, Manchester United, for the ridiculous sum of £24 million. United, recognising that they have been utterly stitched-up by Arsenal, have been quick to ensure that the Dutchman is tied up on a four-year contract." Something like that.
I also wondered whether they done the deal a-la-berbatov and had already sorted out the personal side.
Slightly concerned by the idea that Hernandez will go the other way. Not sure they'll miss Van Persie that much if they get Hernandez? He's clearly not the same player, but with him to finish things off, they could still be very effective.
Of course they did. I thought that was the case as soon as Mancini said City had no chance of signing him. Where did you get the idea that this was a possibility, SD? I've seen nothing to suggest that this is the case.
http://www.mirror.co.uk/sport/football/transfer-news/robin-van-persie-transfer-manchester-1263074 via BBC gossip
Lazy jorunalism, Fergie wants four strikers, like he had in 99, two strikers to form a great partnership, Hernandez will be like a super sub for them and score key goals in europe and Wellbeck is a local lad that isn't going anywhere.
Not saying I believe it, just hoping it isn't a lucky guess and is true. Think he's better than Wellbeck and Barbatov (now).
